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The CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam certification provides beginners and professionals with multiple great career opportunities. The CBIC Exam CIC examination is one of the most demanding CBIC tests. There are multiple benefits you can get after cracking the CIC test. The top-listed benefits include skill verification, high-paying jobs, bonuses, and promotions in your current organizations. All these benefits of earning the CIC certificate help you level up your career in the tech sector.
CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q85-Q90):
NEW QUESTION # 85
A family, including an infant of 8 months, is going on a vacation to Europe. An infection preventionist would recommend:
- A. The infant should not travel until at least 12 months of age.
- B. Family members should be vaccinated for yellow fever.
- C. Exposure to rabies should be avoided.
- D. Family immunization records should be reviewed by their provider.
Answer: D
Explanation:
When advising a family, including an 8-month-old infant, planning a vacation to Europe, an infection preventionist (IP) must consider travel-related health risks and vaccination recommendations tailored to the destination and age-specific guidelines. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Education and Training" domain, which includes providing evidence-based advice to prevent infections, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) and World Health Organization (WHO) travel health recommendations.
Option D, "Family immunization records should be reviewed by their provider," is the most appropriate recommendation. Europe, as a region, includes countries with varying health risks, but it is generally considered a low-risk area for many vaccine-preventable diseases compared to tropical regions. The CDC's
"Travelers' Health" guidelines (2023) recommend that all travelers, including infants, have their immunization status reviewed by a healthcare provider prior to travel to ensure compliance with routine vaccinations (e.g., measles, mumps, rubella [MMR], diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis [DTaP], and polio) and to assess any destination-specific needs. For an 8-month-old, the review would confirm that the infant has received age-appropriate vaccines (e.g., the first doses of DTaP, Hib, PCV, and IPV, typically starting at 2 months) and is on schedule for the 6- and 12-month doses. This step ensures the family's overall protection and identifies any gaps, making it a proactive and universally applicable recommendation.
Option A, "Exposure to rabies should be avoided," is a general travel safety tip applicable to any destination where rabies is endemic (e.g., parts of Eastern Europe or rural areas with wildlife). However, rabies risk in most European countries is low, and pre-exposure vaccination is not routinely recommended for travelers unless specific high-risk activities (e.g., handling bats) are planned. The CDC advises avoiding animal bites rather than vaccinating unless indicated, making this less specific and urgent than a records review. Option B,
"Family members should be vaccinated for yellow fever," is incorrect. Yellow fever is not endemic in Europe, and vaccination is not required or recommended for travel to any European country. The WHO International Health Regulations (2005) and CDC list yellow fever vaccination as mandatory only for travelers from or to certain African and South American regions, rendering this irrelevant. Option C, "The infant should not travel until at least 12 months of age," lacks a clear evidence base. While some vaccines (e.g., MMR) are typically given at 12 months, the 8-month-old can travel safely if up-to-date on age-appropriate immunizations. The CDC allows travel for infants as young as 6 weeks with medical clearance, and delaying travel to 12 months is not a standard recommendation unless specific risks (e.g., disease outbreaks) are present, which are not indicated here.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC Travelers' Health resources prioritize pre-travel health assessments, including immunization reviews, as the foundation for safe travel. Option D ensures a comprehensive approach tailored to the family's needs, making it the best recommendation for a trip to Europe.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Travelers' Health, 2023.
* WHO International Health Regulations, 2005.
The correct answer is B, "Blood pressure cuff," as this item is appropriately cleaned with a disinfectant that is an approved hospital disinfectant with no tuberculocidal claim. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, the selection of disinfectants for medical equipment depends on the item's classification and intended use. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) categorizes hospital disinfectants based on their efficacy against specific pathogens, with tuberculocidal claims indicating effectiveness against Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a highly resistant organism. A disinfectant without a tuberculocidal claim is suitable for non-critical items-those that contact intact skin but not mucous membranes or sterile tissues-such as blood pressure cuffs, which require only low-level disinfection to reduce bacterial and viral loads (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.4 - Implement environmental cleaning and disinfection protocols).
This aligns with CDC guidelines, which designate low-level disinfectants as adequate for non-critical surfaces.
Option A (laryngoscope blades) is incorrect because laryngoscope blades are semi-critical items that contact mucous membranes (e.g., the oropharynx) and require high-level disinfection or sterilization, which necessitates a disinfectant with tuberculocidal activity to ensure efficacy against a broader spectrum of pathogens, including mycobacteria. Option C (respiratory therapy equipment) is also incorrect, as this equipment (e.g., ventilators or nebulizers) is semi-critical or critical depending on its use, requiring at least intermediate- to high-level disinfection, which exceeds the capability of a non-tuberculocidal disinfectant.
Option D (ultrasound probe) is inappropriate if used on intact skin (non-critical, allowing low-level disinfection), but many ultrasound probes contact mucous membranes or sterile sites, necessitating high-level disinfection with a tuberculocidal agent, making this option unreliable without context.
The selection of a blood pressure cuff aligns with CBIC's emphasis on using appropriate disinfectants based on the Spaulding classification to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs) (CBIC Practice Analysis,
2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks). This is supported by EPA and CDC guidelines, which guide disinfectant use based on item risk levels (EPA Disinfectant Product List, 2023; CDC Disinfection Guidelines, 2019).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competencies 3.4 - Implement environmental cleaning and disinfection protocols, 3.5 - Evaluate the environment for infection risks. EPA Disinfectant Product List, 2023. CDC Guidelines for Disinfection and Sterilization in Healthcare Facilities, 2019.
NEW QUESTION # 86
When developing an exposure control plan, the MOST important aspect in the prevention of exposure to tuberculosis is:
- A. Identification of a potentially infectious patient.
- B. Placement of the patient in an airborne infection isolation room.
- C. Use of personal protective equipment.
- D. Prompt initiation of chemotherapeutic agents.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Tuberculosis (TB), caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is an airborne disease that poses a significant risk in healthcare settings, particularly through exposure to infectious droplets. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the "Prevention and Control of Infectious Diseases" domain, which includes developing exposure control plans, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) "Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings" (2005). The question seeks the most important aspect of an exposure control plan to prevent TB exposure, requiring a prioritization of preventive strategies.
Option B, "Identification of a potentially infectious patient," is the most important aspect. Early identification of individuals with suspected or confirmed TB (e.g., through symptom screening like persistent cough, fever, or weight loss, or diagnostic tests like chest X-rays and sputum smears) allows for timely isolation and treatment, preventing further transmission. The CDC guidelines stress that the first step in an exposure control plan is to recognize patients with signs or risk factors for infectious TB, as unrecognized cases are the primary source of healthcare worker and patient exposures. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) also mandates risk assessment and early detection as foundational to TB control plans.
Option A, "Placement of the patient in an airborne infection isolation room," is a critical control measure once a potentially infectious patient is identified. Airborne infection isolation rooms (AIIRs) with negative pressure ventilation reduce the spread of infectious droplets, as recommended by the CDC. However, this step depends on prior identification; placing a patient in an AIIR without knowing their infectious status is inefficient and not the initial priority. Option C, "Prompt initiation of chemotherapeutic agents," is essential for treating active TB and reducing infectiousness, typically within days of effective therapy, per CDC guidelines.
However, this follows identification and diagnosis (e.g., via acid-fast bacilli smear or culture), making it a secondary action rather than the most important preventive aspect. Option D, "Use of personal protective equipment," such as N95 respirators, is a key protective measure for healthcare workers once an infectious patient is identified, as outlined by the CDC and OSHA. However, PPE is a reactive measure that mitigates exposure after identification and isolation, not the foundational step to prevent it.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines prioritize early identification as the cornerstone of TB exposure prevention, enabling all subsequent interventions. Option B ensures that the exposure control plan addresses the source of transmission at its outset, making it the most important aspect.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Guidelines for Preventing the Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in Healthcare Settings, 2005.
* OSHA Respiratory Protection Standard, 29 CFR 1910.134.
NEW QUESTION # 87
Surgical site infection (SSI) data for the previous quarter reveal the following numbers. The surgeon with the highest infection rate is Doctor
- A. White
- B. Brown
- C. Smith
- D. Jones.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To determinewhich surgeon has the highest surgical site infection (SSI) rate, use the following formula:
A screenshot of a report AI-generated content may be incorrect.
SinceDr. White has the highest SSI rate at 9.1%, the correct answer isD. White.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
SSI rates are calculated usinginfection count per total proceduresand reported aspercentage values.
NEW QUESTION # 88
A microbiology laboratory plays a pivotal role in both endemic and epidemic epidemiology. Which of the following should be investigated FIRST?
- A. Two blood isolates of coagulase-negative staphylococci in the oncology unit.
- B. Three respiratory isolates of multi-drug resistant Klebsiella pneumoniae in the medical ICU.
- C. Two isolates of Staphylococcus aureus in postoperative surgical sites.
- D. One blood isolate of Streptococcus agalactiae in the nursery.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Multi-drug resistant (MDR) Klebsiella pneumoniae in a high-risk area like the ICU requires urgent investigation because:
* It spreads rapidly via contaminated hands or equipment.
* It poses a serious risk to immunocompromised patients.
* An outbreak could lead to severe hospital-acquired infections (HAIs).
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. One blood isolate of Streptococcus agalactiae in the nursery - Single cases are not indicative of an outbreak.
* B. Two isolates of Staphylococcus aureus in postoperative surgical sites - Common post-surgical pathogen; requires monitoring but not immediate outbreak investigation.
* D. Two blood isolates of coagulase-negative staphylococci in the oncology unit - Common contaminants in blood cultures and not immediately alarming.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
APIC guidelines prioritize investigating MDR pathogens in high-risk units, such as ICU, to prevent transmission.
NEW QUESTION # 89
The expectation to call out or speak up when an infection prevention lapse is observed is an example of
- A. implementation of human factors.
- B. a safety culture with reciprocal accountability.
- C. honest disclosure of a safety event.
- D. a blaming and shaming safety culture.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A safety culture withreciprocal accountabilityemphasizes mutual responsibility for maintaining safe practices, encouraging staff at all levels to "speak up" or "stop the line" when they observe risky practices.
This concept reflects a learning organization and a just culture that supports open communication and proactive risk mitigation.
* According to theAPIC Text, a strong safety culture is described as one where:
"The leadership can expect staff members to call out or stop the line when they see risk, and staff can expect leadership to listen and act." This dynamic reflects reciprocal accountability.
* Other options are less accurate:
* A. Human factorsrefer to system design, not behavioral accountability.
* B. Honest disclosure of a safety eventis about post-event transparency, not real-time intervention.
* C. A blaming and shaming cultureis antithetical to safety culture principles.
References:
APIC Text, 4th Edition, Chapter 18 - Patient Safety
NEW QUESTION # 90
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